Depends, Tecs. At that time in Europe, there were a lot of empires around, so that a Spaniard (Mexican in your map) might be in Naples and a citizen there, but not be an Italian....
I got lost with the convoluted "logic" in your argument. Which premise implies which conclusion, why do the claimed implications hold, and how does it all hang together?
I hope and pray you apply higher standards when writing the real stuff. Like, (A\Rightarrow B)\not \equiv (\bar{A} \Rightarrow \bar{B}).
7 comments:
1810<1776? Sure. Just redefine <.
Mexico was called Mexico way before 1820. The USA wasn't called the USA till 1776.
If you don't know your history, Tecs, maybe we should think of a relocation...
Being called something ain't the same as declaring yourself independent, let alone proving it.
Depends, Tecs. At that time in Europe, there were a lot of empires around, so that a Spaniard (Mexican in your map) might be in Naples and a citizen there, but not be an Italian....
You get my drift.
I think Obama is right, so get out.
I got lost with the convoluted "logic" in your argument. Which premise implies which conclusion, why do the claimed implications hold, and how does it all hang together?
I hope and pray you apply higher standards when writing the real stuff. Like, (A\Rightarrow B)\not \equiv (\bar{A} \Rightarrow \bar{B}).
What's the closure in propositional logic, Tecs?
Jeez, yer loosin it.
Apparently. He seems to think the Spaniards were real nice back then, just like the lady that makes the good tortillas in the taquito place.
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